Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 03:08
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Nintendo has replaced the longtime voice of Peach and Toad - Polygon
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
6 foods you should be eating for stronger bones, according to nutritionists - AOL.com
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Higher-Earning Shoppers Hit the Dollar Store as Spending Tightens - WSJ
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.